Who is Saved?

Something that plagues my mind is the question of who on earth is saved... Who did Jesus save by his death, burial and resurrection? You may find this post controversial - but it's not meant to be so. This is meant for expression of questions only...

There are some scriptures that seem conflicting to me regarding salvation (thus, the reason for this post): 1.) "...for God does not show favourtism" (Romans 2:11); and 2.) "Salvation is found in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given to men by which we must be saved" (referring to Jesus in Acts 4:12).

How do they conflict? If human beings can only be saved through Christ, then much of the world who have not heard of Christ are lost. HOWEVER, according to the scripture in Romans, God does not show favourtism. Question: how is it fair (if God shows no favourtism) for someone who lives in a region where Christ was never preached that they'll not be saved? Just because I was born in North America, that means I have a GREATER CHANCE for salvation because the gospel has access to me here?

What about the people who lived at the time of Jesus (after the resurrection) - they didn't have a snowball's chance to have any hope of Heaven - most would have died before the gospel ever reached their ears.

So, when someone says to me, "100,000 people died yesterday in unreached parts of the world - they are now in Hell," does not sit well, because - God does not show favourtism. To me, God WOULD be showing favourtism to people who are born in areas where the gospel is within reach.

So how do I reconcile this? Do I still believe we should go and preach? Yes. People need the Hope of Jesus now as much as when they die...but what about those dying without hearing? I just don't know if it's as cut-and-dried as the Church has presented it.

According to Romans 2:14, those who do not have "gospel access" will be judged (not all condemned) under the law that governs their lives. The scripture reads,"Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law."

Now consider Acts 17:26 - "From one man he made every nation of men, that they should inhabit the whole earth; and he determined the times set for them and the exact places where they should live." That means, the people placed by God in areas where HE knew the gospel would not reach (or reach in time) MUST have access to God without calling on Jesus because as we've read, God shows no favourtism. That means, He gave us each equal opportunity for salvation... The next verse (27) reads, "God did this (placed them in specific times and in specific places) so that men would seek him and perhaps reach out for him and find him, though he is not far from each one of us." See that? He's not far from each one of us...

The fact that God shows no favourtism, but that no one has access to God without Jesus, can be reconciled (to me) as follows: Someone who lives in a place (determined by God) that has no gospel access - yet still "reach(es) out for him," are surely judged under the law which they are unto themselves, but still can only access God (who shows no favourtism) through the blood of Jesus. I do believe that Jesus died, "..once for all," meaning, anyone who seeks God (as they understand Him) are still saved under Christ's blood, even if they've never heard his name. Ehem.